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  2. he new 70-486 dumps (June/2018 Updated) now are available, here are part of 70-486 exam questions (FYI):[Get the download link at the end of this post]NEW QUESTION 234You are maintaining an ASP.NET Core MVC web application that runs on Azure. Remote debugging is enabled for this role, but the input endpoints for remote debugging have been removed for security reasons. You do not have permission to view the Azure Portal for this deployment. You can log on by using Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP). You must attach the input endpoints to enable remote debugging. You need to add the input endpoints to enable remote debugging. Which file should you modify?A. C:\Config\<GUID>.ccfB. E:\entrypoint.txtC. E:\<GUID>.csmanD. C:\Config\<DeploymentD>.WebRole.1.xmlAnswer: CNEW QUESTION 235You are developing an ASP.NET application that runs on Windows Server 2012. An exception is preventing a page from rendering. You need to view the trace information for the page. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)A. Add the following markup segment to the web.config file: <trace mostRecent= "true/">.B. Load the trace.axd page from the root of the website.C. Add the traceEnable element to the Internet Information Service (IIS) Metabase section for the application.D. Add the following markup segment to the web.config file: <trace enabled= "true/">.Answer: BDExplanation:For option D:You can control whether tracing is enabled or disabled for individual pages. If tracing is enabled, when the page is requested, ASP.NET appends to the page a series of tables containing execution details about the page request. Tracing is disabled by default. To enable tracing for a page:1. Include an @ Page directive at the top of your .aspx file.2. Add a Trace attribute and set its value to true, as shown in the following example:<%@ Page Trace="true" %>You can also configure tracing in the Web.config file by setting the enabled, localOnly, and pageOutput attributes of the trace Element (ASP.NET Settings Schema).NEW QUESTION 236You develop an ASP.NET web application that is self-hosted using Open Web Interface for .NET (OWIN) in a Microsoft Azure Worker role. The web application throws exceptions. You need to resolve the exceptions.Solution: Use standard HttpModule and HttpHandler types.Does the solution meet the goal?A. YesB. NoAnswer: BExplanation:Open Web Interface for .NET (OWIN) defines an abstraction between .NET web servers and web applications. OWIN decouples the web application from the server, which makes OWIN ideal for self-hosting a web application in your own process, outside of IIS-for example, inside an Azure worker role.NEW QUESTION 237You develop an ASP.NET web application that is self-hosted using Open Web Interface for .NET (OWIN) in a Microsoft Azure Worker role. The web application throws exceptions. You need to resolve the exceptions.Solution: Reference System.Web.dll to run in a custom host.Does the solution meet the goal?A. YesB. NoAnswer: BExplanation:Traditional ASP.NET (up to MVC 5) is tightly coupled to IIS through System.Web.dll. ASP.NET Core provides a separation between the web server and your web application. This allows web applications to be portable between different web servers and also allows web servers to be self-hosted, which means you can start a web server in your own process, as opposed to a process that is owned by dedicated web server software such as IIS.NEW QUESTION 238You develop an ASP.NET Core MVC web application. You have a legacy business system that sends data to the web application by using Web API. The legacy business system uses proprietary data formats. You need to handle the proprietary data format.Solution: Add an instance of a custom formatter class to the OutputFormatters collection in MVC.Does the solution meet the goal?A. YesB. NoAnswer: BExplanation:We need to add the custom formatter class to the InputFormatters collection in MVC.NEW QUESTION 239You define a startup task in the ServiceDefinition.csdef file. The task consists of a batch file that runs a Windows PowerShell script. The script places configuration files in local storage for use in a worker role. The worker role needs this information before starting. The worker role does not start after the startup task runs. You need to ensure that the worker role starts. What should you do?A. Use environment variables based on members of the RoleEnvironment class instead of static environment variables.B. Configure the task to use the directory specified by the TEMP environment variable.C. Ensure the task completes with an errorlevel of 0.D. Change the task from simple to foreground.Answer: CExplanation:Startup tasks must end with an errorlevel (or exit code) of zero for the startup process to complete. If a startup task ends with a non-zero errorlevel, the role will not start. Startup tasks are actions that are taken before your roles begin and are defined in the ServiceDefinition.csdef file by using the Task element within the Startup element. Frequently startup tasks are batch files, but they can also be console applications, or batch files that start PowerShell scripts.NEW QUESTION 240You are developing an ASP.NET Core MVC web application that will be deployed to Microsoft Azure App Services Web App. Scheduled downtime during deployment of new features is not permitted. You need to ensure that deployments do not result in downtime. What should you do?A. Add additional upgrade domains.B. Use deployment slots during deployments.C. Convert the Web App to run in a standalone Docker container.D. Upgrade to a Premium App Service plan.Answer: BNEW QUESTION 241......NEW QUESTION 242You are developing an application that uses ASP.NET Core Identity for authorization. The application must use an existing Microsoft Azure Table Storage instance to store user information. You create a custom UserStore class. You need to register the class as a dependency. Which two interfaces should you implement? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)A. IUserSecurityStampStoreB. IUserLoginStoreC. IQueryableUserStoreD. IUserStoreE. IUserPasswordStoreAnswer: BDNEW QUESTION 243You are designing an ASP.NET Core MVC application that handles multiple customers. A user may log on to the site to perform activities such as checking balances, performing transactions, and other activities that must be done securely. The application must store secure information that is specific to an individual user. The data must be automatically and securely purged when the user logs off. You need to save transient information in a secure data store. Which data store should you use?A. ASP.NET session stateB. ASP.NET profile propertiesC. shared databaseD. ASP.NET application stateAnswer: CNEW QUESTION 244You are designing a ASP.NET Core MVC application that runs on the Microsoft Azure platform. The application must store a small amount of information that is shared across all users and does not change frequently. You need to configure the application to meet the requirements. Which server-side state management options will achieve the goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)A. HTTP CookieB. Azure SQL DatabaseC. ASP.NET session stateD. ASP.NET application stateAnswer: BDNEW QUESTION 245Drag and DropYou deploy an ASP.NET MVC e-commerce application to a Microsoft Azure App Services Web App. Users report that the Orders page displays incorrect date and time information. You are unable to reproduce the issue locally. You need to configure Remote Debugging for the web application. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)Answer:NEW QUESTION 246HotspotYou are developing an ASP.NET Core MVC web application. The web application must meet the following requirements:- Allow users to create a user name and password.- Use cookie-based authentication.- Store user credentials in a Microsoft SQL Server database.You need to implement ASP.NET Core Identity. How should you complete the code? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)Answer:NEW QUESTION 247......Get the newest Pass4surekey 70-486 VCE dumps here: https://www.pass4surekey.com/exam/70-486.html
  3. 2018 June New Microsoft 70-764 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new 70-764 Real Exam Questions:QUESTION 198 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You support an application that stores data in a Microsoft SQL Server database. You have a query that returns data for a report that users run frequently. The query optimizer sometimes generates a poorly-performing plan for the query when certain parameters are used. You observe that this is due to the distribution of data within a specific table that the query uses. You need to ensure that the query optimizer always uses the query plan that you prefer. Solution: You force the desired plan. Does the solution meet the goal?A. Yes B. NoAnswer: B QUESTION 199 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You support an application that stores data in a Microsoft SQL Server database. You have a query that returns data for a report that users run frequently. The query optimizer sometimes generates a poorly-performing plan for the query when certain parameters are used. You observe that this is due to the distribution of data within a specific table that the query uses. You need to ensure that the query optimizer always uses the query plan that you prefer. Solution: You create a copy of the plan guide for the query plan. Does the solution meet the goal?A. Yes B. NoAnswer: B QUESTION 200 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You support an application that stores data in a Microsoft SQL Server database. You have a query that returns data for a report that users run frequently. The query optimizer sometimes generates a poorly-performing plan for the query when certain parameters are used. You observe that this is due to the distribution of data within a specific table that the query uses. You need to ensure that the query optimizer always uses the query plan that you prefer. Solution: You add the KEEPFIXED PLAN query hint to the query. Does the solution meet the goal?A. Yes B. NoAnswer: AQUESTION 201 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a data warehouse that stores sales data. One fact table has 100 million rows. You must reduce storage needs for the data warehouse. You need to implement a solution that uses column-based storage and provides real-time analytics for the operational workload. Solution: You remove any clustered indexes and load the table for processing. Does the solution meet the goal?A. Yes B. NoAnswer: BQUESTION 203 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your company is developing a new business intelligence application that will access data in a Microsoft Azure SQL Database instance. All objects in the instance have the same owner. A new security principal named BI_User requires permission to run stored procedures in the database. The stored procedures read from and write to tables in the database. None of the stored procedures perform IDENTIFY_INSERT operations or dynamic SQL commands. The scope of permissions and authentication of BI_User should be limited to the database. When granting permissions, you should use the principle of least privilege. You need to create the required security principals and grant the appropriate permissions. Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement in the database: Does the solution meet the goal?A. Yes B. NoAnswer: BQUESTION 204 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your company is developing a new business intelligence application that will access data in a Microsoft Azure SQL Database instance. All objects in the instance have the same owner. A new security principal named BI_User requires permission to run stored procedures in the database. The stored procedures read from and write to tables in the database. None of the stored procedures perform IDENTIFY_INSERT operations or dynamic SQL commands. The scope of permissions and authentication of BI_User should be limited to the database. When granting permissions, you should use the principle of least privilege. You need to create the required security principals and grant the appropriate permissions. Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement: Does the solution meet the goal?A. Yes B. NoAnswer: A QUESTION 205 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You attempt to restore a database on a new SQL Server instance and receive the following error message: "Msg 33111, Level 16, State 3, Line 2 Cannot find server certificate with thumbprint `0x7315277C70764B1F252DC7A5101F6F66EFB1069D'." You need to ensure that you can restore the database successfully. Solution: You disable BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker) on the drive that contains the database backup. Does this meet the goal?A. Yes B. NoAnswer: BQUESTION 208 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. You are migrating a set of databases from an existing Microsoft SQL Server instance to a new instance. You need to complete the migration while minimizing administrative effort and downtime. Which should you implement?A. log shipping B. an Always On Availability Group with all replicas in synchronous-commit mode C. a file share witness D. a SQL Server failover cluster instance (FCI) E. a Windows Cluster with a shared-nothing architecture F. an Always On Availability Group with secondary replicas in asynchronous-commit modeAnswer: A 1.|2018 New 70-764 Exam Dumps (PDF & VCE) 365Q&As Download: https://www.pass4surekey.com/exam/70-764.html
  4. NEW QUESTION 1Scenario:A Citrix Administrator has configured the following Access Control List (ACL) to block traffic from the IP address 10.102.29.5:add simpleacl rule1 DENY -srclP 10.102.29.5A week later, the administrator found that the ACL is no longer present on the NetScaler. What could be the reason for this?A. The administrator did NOT run the apply ACL command.B. The NetScaler has been restarted without saving the configurations.C. The Simple ACLs remain active for only 600 seconds.D. The Simple ACLs remain active for only 60 seconds.Answer: ANEW QUESTION 2Which scenario will cause automatic high availability (HA) synchronization to fail?A. Different build versionsB. Manually forced synchronizationC. A force failoverD. A configuration change to the primary NetScalerAnswer: BNEW QUESTION 3Scenario:A Citrix Administrator is concerned about the amount of health checks the NetScaler is sending to the backend resources. The administrator would like to find a way to remove health checks from specific bound services. How can the administrator accomplish this?A. Use the No-Monitor option.B. Use Service Groups to minimize health checks.C. Unbind the current monitor.D. Use reverse condition monitoring.Answer: ANEW QUESTION 4Scenario:A Citrix Administrator needs to add 10 new web servers to an existing server farm. The new servers are configured to serve the same applications and connections and are twice the capacity of the existing servers. The administrator wants to ensure that they are being fully utilized. Currently in the environment, the default load-balancing method is being used. To ensure that only the 10 new servers are receiving twice the connections of the old servers without changing the load balancing to the rest of the environment, the administrator needs to add a weight of ____ to the services attached to the ____ servers. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)A. 50; newB. 50; oldC. 2; newD. 2; oldAnswer: DNEW QUESTION 5A Citrix Administrator has executed the commands in the screenshot on the NetScaler using the command-line interface.Referring to the exhibit, which two replacements will be the outcome of executing these commands? (Choose two.)A. http:// will be replaced by https:// in the HTTP RESPONSEB. https:// will be replaced by http:// in the HTTP RESPONSEC. http:// will be replaced by https:// in the HTTP REQUESTD. https:// will be replaced by http:// in the HTTP REQUESTAnswer: BNEW QUESTION 6What is the effect of the set cmp parameter -cmpBypassPct 70 command if compression is enabled on the NetScafer?A. Compression will be bypassed if the NetScaler bandwidth consumption is more than 70%.B. Compression will be bypassed if the NetScaler CPU load is 70%.C. Compression will be bypassed if the NetScaler bandwidth consumption is less than 70%.D. Compression will be bypassed if the NetScaler Memory utilization is 70%.Answer: BNEW QUESTION 7A Citrix Administrator needs to configure the Lights Out Management (LOM) port. Which statement is applicable to LOM?A. LOM is accessed using Command-Line Interface (CLI).B. LOM IP address should be in the same subnet as NSIP.C. LOM firmware is included in the NetScaler upgrade package.D. LOM port can be used to remotely monitor and manage the appliance.Answer: ANEW QUESTION 8Scenario:A Citrix Administrator would like to grant access to a Junior Administrator on the NetScaler. The administrator would like to grant full access to everything except the following:* Shell Access* User Configuration access* Partition Configuration accessWhich pre-existing command policy would meet the needs of the scenario?A. SuperuserB. NetworkC. OperatorD. SysadminAnswer: ANEW QUESTION 9A Citrix Administrator notices that the NetScaler is sending the IP addresses of all the active services in the DNS response. The administrator can use the set gslb vserver<name> ____ parameter to avoid this behavior. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)A. EDR DISABLEDB. EDR ENABLEDC. MIR ENABLEDD. MIR DISABLEDAnswer: CDNEW QUESTION 10What is the effect of the set gslb parameter - GSLBSvcStateDelayTime 10 command on the Global Server Load Balancing (GSLB) environment, when Metric Excnange Protocol (MEP) is enabled?A. The Metric Exchange Protocol (MEP) will be marked as DOWN if the GSLB service has been DOWN for 10 seconds.B. The Metric Exchange Protocol (MEP) will be marked as DOWN if the GSLB vServer has been DOWN for 10 seconds.C. The GSLB services will be marked as DOWN if the Metric Exchange Protocol (MEP) connection has been DOWN for 10 seconds.D. The GSLB services will be marked as DOWN if the service has been DOWN for 10 seconds.Answer: CNEW QUESTION 11……Get the newest Pass4surekey 1Y0-240 VCE dumps here: https://www.pass4surekey.com/exam/1Y0-240.html
  5. 2018 March New Cisco 300-160 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new 300-160 Real Exam Questions:QUESTION 87 Which technology uses TCP as a block I/O transport?A. iSCSI B. NFS v4 C. CIFS D. FCoEAnswer: AQUESTION 88 Which two options are advantages of the core-edge SAN topology as compared to the collapsed-core SAM topology? (Choose two.)A. predictable performance B. minimized ISL usage C. easier to analyze and tune performance D. single management interface E. higher scalabilityAnswer: AE Explanation:https://supportforums.cisco.com/document/125836/core-edge-and-collapse-core-san-topologies#Core-Edge_TopologyQUESTION 89 Which two actions must be performed when you configure Cisco VN-Link in hardware? (Choose two.)A. Create a distributed virtual switch in Cisco UCS Manager. B. Add an ESX host to the distributed virtual switch in Cisco UCS Manager. C. Create a port profile and profile clients in Cisco UCS Manager. D. Create a standard switch on an ESXi host and map the network adapters to the switch. E. Create a distributed virtual switch under the datacenter folder in VMware vCenter.Answer: ACQUESTION 90 Which two options represent an access layer solution designed to accelerate server virtualization, that is managed just like other network devices in the data center? (Choose two)A. MPIO B. host vPC C. VEM D. VSS E. VSMAnswer: CE QUESTION 91 You must configure resiliency for Fibre Channel uplink ports on Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects. Which feature should you configure?A. an appliance port B. vPC C. a port channel D. a unified storage portAnswer: CQUESTION 92 Which technology provides additional scalability and simplification of an Ethernet network, providing more efficient forwarding and eliminating the need for the STP?A. OTV B. vPC C. PVST+ D. FabricPathAnswer: DQUESTION 93 Which type of switch interfaces are supported in classic NPV mode for a Fibre Channel network?A. the vFC internal port and the physical external port B. the physical internal port and the physical external port C. the vFC internal port and the vFC external port D. the vFC external port and the physical internal portAnswer: DQUESTION 94 Which technology can you use to create separate routing tables for different tenants that are hosted on the same Cisco NX-OS platform?A. Cisco FabricPath B. VLANs C. vPC D. VRFAnswer: D Explanation:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/nx-os/vxlan/configuration/guide/b_NX-OS_VXLAN_Configuration_Guide/configuring_vxlan_flood_and_learn.htmlQUESTION 95 Which two options are reasons to use Layer 3 routing to segment a data center instead of Layer 2 switching? (Choose two)A. limit the scope of Spanning Tree Protocol B. simplify design C. ease of routing protocol configuration D. limit the scope of broadcast flooding E. costAnswer: CDQUESTION 96 Which appliance port is connected to a Cisco UCS?A. Nexus port B. Fibre Channel storage C. Catalyst switch port D. NFS storageAnswer: DQUESTION 97 Which three options are examples of NHRP? (Choose three.)A. OSPF B. HSRP C. VRRP D. GLBP E. OCSP F. EIGRP G. MPLSAnswer: BCD1.|2018 Latest 300-160 Exam Dumps (PDF & VCE) 125Q&As Download:https://www.pass4surekey.com/exam/300-160.html
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  15. Hi Guys, We have configured NTP on ADC server & it can able to sync time from public NTP server. But when I configure NTP on any cisco switch/ router to sync with our ADC its not working. I am putting configuration & debug output with you. Please go through same & help us to find out exact problem. Switch NTP config : ntp logging ntp server 10.50.5.150 source Vlan5 prefer <<<<<<< 10.50.5.150 is our ADC server Ip address CPINDUVCP1FSW01#show ntp status Clock is unsynchronized, stratum 16, no reference clock nominal freq is 119.2092 Hz, actual freq is 119.2092 Hz, precision is 2**17 reference time is 00000000.00000000 (05:30:00.000 IST Mon Jan 1 1900) clock offset is 0.0000 msec, root delay is 0.00 msec root dispersion is 0.00 msec, peer dispersion is 0.00 msec CPINDUVCP1FSW01#show ntp associations address ref clock st when poll reach delay offset disp ~10.50.5.150 .LOCL. 1 671 1024 377 4.2 109857 10.6 * master (synced), # master (unsynced), + selected, - candidate, ~ configured Debug logs : 14w5d: NTP: xmit packet to 10.50.5.150: 14w5d: leap 3, mode 3, version 3, stratum 0, ppoll 1024 14w5d: rtdel 0000 (0.000), rtdsp 10001 (1000.015), refid 00000000 (0.0.0.0) 14w5d: ref 00000000.00000000 (00:00:00.000 IST Mon Jan 1 1900) 14w5d: org DED75BEA.0E8F3DF6 (11:28:42.056 IST Fri Jun 22 2018) 14w5d: rec DED70E6A.CBBF610E (05:58:02.795 IST Fri Jun 22 2018) 14w5d: xmt DED70E6B.C84AF1C0 (05:58:03.782 IST Fri Jun 22 2018) 14w5d: NTP: rcv packet from 10.50.5.150 to 10.50.5.11 on Vlan5: 14w5d: leap 0, mode 4, version 3, stratum 1, ppoll 1024 14w5d: rtdel 0000 (0.000), rtdsp A44D7 (10268.906), refid 4C4F434C (76.79.67.76) 14w5d: ref DED7066F.567F8876 (05:23:59.337 IST Fri Jun 22 2018) 14w5d: org DED70E6B.C84AF1C0 (05:58:03.782 IST Fri Jun 22 2018) 14w5d: rec DED75BEB.0E8FEAC4 (11:28:43.056 IST Fri Jun 22 2018) 14w5d: xmt DED75BEB.0E8FEAC4 (11:28:43.056 IST Fri Jun 22 2018) 14w5d: inp DED70E6B.C8BCB2B3 (05:58:03.784 IST Fri Jun 22 2018) Is there any issue with stratum value.
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  21. New VMware 2V0-602 PDF and VCE Dumps 362Q [Updated 19th/June/2018] 2018 June New VMware 2V0-602 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new 2V0-602 Real Exam Questions:QUESTION 314 What is the maximum supported number of vCPU per VM in VMware vSphere 6.5?A. 256 B. 128 C. 64 D. 32Answer: B Explanation:https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.5/com.vmware.vsphere.configmax.doc/GUID-456C4E8F-E8CC-44FD-B121-18DA64BDCC87.htmlQUESTION 315 What are two valid methods to deploy an OVF template which consists of two or more VMs? (Choose two.)A. deploy on the standalone host connected to vCenter Server B. deploy on a vSphere DRS enabled cluster C. deploy on a vSphere HA enabled cluster D. deploy on the VMware vSphere HypervisorAnswer: BDQUESTION 316 A vSphere Administrator uses vMotion to migrate a virtual machine between two ESXi hosts and notices that they can no longer ping the VM. What is the cause?A. The destination host has an incorrect VLAN tag on the virtual machine port group for the VM B. The destination host has two port groups with the same VLAN tag C. The virtual machine has RDMs attached D. There's an MTU mismatchAnswer: BQUESTION 317 Which three options are required to use vSphere DRS features successfully? (Choose three.)A. Shared Storage B. Processor Compatibility C. Datastore Cluster D. Shared VMFS Volume E. Resource PoolsAnswer: ABD Explanation:https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.0/com.vmware.vsphere.resmgmt.doc/GUID-CAF3CDC4-469F-4FA4-ACFD-24F5F36847EA.htmlQUESTION 318 When using vSAN, all the storage characteristics are specified by Storage Policies. Which parameter in vSAN Storage Policies can increase performance in a cache miss situation? (Choose the best answer.)A. Number of disk stripes per object B. Number of failures to tolerate C. Object space reservation (%) D. Force provisioningAnswer: A Explanation:https://blogs.vmware.com/virtualblocks/2016/09/19/vsan-stripes/QUESTION 319 Which two options can be monitored when creating a new Alarm Definition? (Choose two.)A. specific actions of a user B. other alarms defined for the object C. specific conditions or state D. specific event occurring on the objectAnswer: CD Explanation:https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.5/com.vmware.vsphere.monitoring.doc/GUID-79AC1262-D701-4BC8-8F8D-F046AE0578CF.htmlQUESTION 320 What is the minimum version of ESXi required to support VMFS6? (Choose the best answer.)A. ESXi 6.0 and later B. ESXi 5.0 and later C. ESXi 5.5 and later D. ESXi 6.5 and laterAnswer: D Explanation:https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.5/com.vmware.vsphere.storage.doc/GUID-7552DAD4-1809-4687-B46E-ED9BB42CE277.htmlQUESTION 321 A vSphere Administrator is required to apply security hardening policies following the VMware vSphere Hardening Guide recommendations. Which tool enables native compliance reporting for these guidelines? (Choose the best answer.)A. VMware AirWatch B. VMware vRealize Operations Manager C. VMware vCenter Server D. VMware vSphere Update ManagerAnswer: B Explanation:https://docs.vmware.com/en/vRealize-Operations-Manager/6.5/com.vmware.vcom.core.doc/GUID-1DE5F654-A59E-4DA0-A294-AE7676AEE267.htmlQUESTION 322 A vSphere administrator wants to migrate a virtual machine with vMotion from one node to another in the same cluster, but when the destination server is specified, an error message is displayed. What might be wrong? (Choose two.)A. The cluster is configured for EVC and the hosts are of the same processor family B. The destination host does not have access to the shared datastore C. The source host is not licensed for vMotion D. The hosts are licensed for vSphere Essentials Plus E. The hosts have a dedicated vMotion VMKernel interface configuredAnswer: BE Explanation:https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.5/com.vmware.vsphere.vcenterhost.doc/GUID-9F1D4A3B-3392-46A3-8720-73CBFA000A3C.htmlhttps://kb.vmware.com/s/article/2145068QUESTION 323 Which three limits can restrict the maximum number of simultaneous migrations that can occur in a vSphere environment? (Choose three.)A. Datastore limits B. RAM limits C. CPU limits D. Network limits E. Host limitsAnswer: ADE Explanation:https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.0/com.vmware.vsphere.vcenterhost.doc/GUID-25EA5833-03B5-4EDD-A167-87578B8009B3.htmlQUESTION 324 Which type of network traffic is used for vSphere High Availability (HA) by default?A. VM Network traffic B. Management network traffic C. vMotion network traffic D. ISCSI Port Binding network trafficAnswer: B Explanation:https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.5/com.vmware.vsphere.avail.doc/GUID-B1906BCD-E538-4FFF-AAE9-5403FE253F38.html1.|2018 Latest 2V0-602 Exam Dumps (PDF & VCE) 362Q&As Download: https://www.pass4surekey.com/exam/2V0-602.html
  22. 2018 May New CompTIA CAS-003 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Just Updated Today! Following are some new CAS-003 Real Exam Questions:QUESTION 48 A company has hired an external security consultant to conduct a thorough review of all aspects of corporate security. The company is particularly concerned about unauthorized access to its physical offices resulting in network compromises. Which of the following should the consultant recommend be performed to evaluate potential risks?A. The consultant should attempt to gain access to physical offices through social engineering and then attempt data exfiltration B. The consultant should be granted access to all physical access control systems to review logs and evaluate the likelihood of the threat C. The company should conduct internal audits of access logs and employee social media feeds to identify potential insider threats D. The company should install a temporary CCTV system to detect unauthorized access to physical officesAnswer: AQUESTION 49 An agency has implemented a data retention policy that requires tagging data according to type before storing it in the data repository. The policy requires all business emails be automatically deleted after two years. During an open records investigation, information was found on an employee's work computer concerning a conversation that occurred three years prior and proved damaging to the agency's reputation. Which of the following MOST likely caused the data leak?A. The employee manually changed the email client retention settings to prevent deletion of emails B. The file that contained the damaging information was mistagged and retained on the server for longer than it should have been C. The email was encrypted and an exception was put in place via the data classification application D. The employee saved a file on the computer's hard drive that contained archives of emails, which were more than two years oldAnswer: DQUESTION 50 An advanced threat emulation engineer is conducting testing against a client's network. The engineer conducts the testing in as realistic a manner as possible. Consequently, the engineer has been gradually ramping up the volume of attacks over a long period of time. Which of the following combinations of techniques would the engineer MOST likely use in this testing? (Choose three.)A. Black box testing B. Gray box testing C. Code review D. Social engineering E. Vulnerability assessment F. Pivoting G. Self-assessment H. White teaming I. External auditingAnswer: AEFQUESTION 51 An insurance company has two million customers and is researching the top transactions on its customer portal. It identifies that the top transaction is currently password reset. Due to users not remembering their secret questions, a large number of calls are consequently routed to the contact center for manual password resets. The business wants to develop a mobile application to improve customer engagement in the future, continue with a single factor of authentication, minimize management overhead of the solution, remove passwords, and eliminate to the contact center. Which of the following techniques would BEST meet the requirements? (Choose two.)A. Magic link sent to an email address B. Customer ID sent via push notification C. SMS with OTP sent to a mobile number D. Third-party social login E. Certificate sent to be installed on a device F. Hardware tokens sent to customersAnswer: CEQUESTION 52 A security architect is implementing security measures in response to an external audit that found vulnerabilities in the corporate collaboration tool suite. The report identified the lack of any mechanism to provide confidentiality for electronic correspondence between users and between users and group mailboxes. Which of the following controls would BEST mitigate the identified vulnerability?A. Issue digital certificates to all users, including owners of group mailboxes, and enable S/MIME B. Federate with an existing PKI provider, and reject all non-signed emails C. Implement two-factor email authentication, and require users to hash all email messages upon receipt D. Provide digital certificates to all systems, and eliminate the user group or shared mailboxesAnswer: AQUESTION 53 The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of an Internet service provider (ISP) has decided to limit the company's contribution to worldwide Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks. Which of the following should the ISP implement? (Select TWO).A. Block traffic from the ISP's networks destined for blacklisted IPs. B. Prevent the ISP's customers from querying DNS servers other than those hosted by the ISP. C. Scan the ISP's customer networks using an up-to-date vulnerability scanner. D. Notify customers when services they run are involved in an attack. E. Block traffic with an IP source not allocated to customers from exiting the ISP's network.Answer: DE Explanation: Since DDOS attacks can originate from nay different devices and thus makes it harder to defend against, one way to limit the company's contribution to DDOS attacks is to notify customers about any DDOS attack when they run services that are under attack. The company can also block IP sources that are not allocated to customers from the existing SIP's network.QUESTION 55 A small company is developing a new Internet-facing web application. The security requirements are: Users of the web application must be uniquely identified and authenticated. Users of the web application will not be added to the company's directory services. 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  24. 2018 May New CompTIA SY0-501 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Just Updated Today! Following are some new SY0-501 Real Exam Questions:QUESTION 128 A user has attempted to access data at a higher classification level than the user's account is currency authorized to access. Which of the following access control models has been applied to this user's account?A. MAC B. DAC C. RBAC D. ABACAnswer: CQUESTION 129 A company determines that it is prohibitively expensive to become compliant with new credit card regulations. Instead, the company decides to purchase insurance to cover the cost of any potential loss. Which of the following is the company doing?A. Transferring the risk B. Accepting the risk C. Avoiding the risk D. Mitigating the riskAnswer: AQUESTION 130 An organization has determined it can tolerate a maximum of three hours of downtime. Which of the following has been specified?A. RTO B. RPO C. MTBF D. MTTRAnswer: AQUESTION 131 An attacker compromises a public CA and issues unauthorized X.509 certificates for Company.com. In the future, impact of similar incidents. Which of the following would assist Company.com with its goal?A. Certificate pinning B. Certificate stapling C. Certificate chaining D. Certificate with extended validationAnswer: AQUESTION 132 After a user reports stow computer performance, a systems administrator detects a suspicious file, which was installed as part of a freeware software package. The systems administrator reviews the output below: Based on the above information, which of the following types of malware was installed on the user's computer?A. RAT B. Keylogger C. Spyware D. Worm E. BotAnswer: DQUESTION 133 Drag and Drop Questions A forensic analyst is asked to respond to an ongoing network attack on a server. Place the items in the list below in the correct order in which the forensic analyst should preserve them. Answer: Explanation: When dealing with multiple issues, address them in order of volatility (OOV); always deal with the most volatile first. Volatility can be thought of as the amount of time that you have to collect certain data before a window of opportunity is gone. Naturally, in an investigation you want to collect everything, but some data will exist longer than others, and you cannot possibly collect all of it once. As an example, the OOV in an investigation may be RAM, hard drive data, CDs/DVDs, and printouts. Order of volatility: Capture system images as a snapshot of what exists, look at network traffic and logs, capture any relevant video/screenshots/hashes, record time offset on the systems, talk to witnesses, and track total man-hours and expenses associated with the investigation.QUESTION 134 Malicious traffic from an internal network has been detected on an unauthorized port on an application server. Which of the following network-based security controls should the engineer consider implementing?A. ACLs B. HIPS C. NAT D. MAC filteringAnswer: AQUESTION 135 A company wants to host a publicly available server that performs the following functions: Evaluates MX record lookup Can perform authenticated requests for A and AAA records Uses RRSIG Which of the following should the company use to fulfill the above requirements?A. DNSSEC B. SFTP C. nslookup D. digAnswer: A Explanation: DNS Security Extensions (DNSSEC) provides, among other things, cryptographic authenticity of responses using Resource Record Signatures (RRSIG) and authenticated denial of existence using Next-Secure (NSEC) and Hashed-NSEC records (NSEC3).QUESTION 136 Which of the following attack types BEST describes a client-side attack that is used to mandate an HTML iframe with JavaScript code via web browser?A. Buffer overflow B. MITM C. xss D. SQLiAnswer: CQUESTION 137 A company has a data classification system with definitions for "Private" and public." The company's security policy outlines how data should be protected based on type. The company recently added the data type "Proprietary". Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the company added this data type?A. Reduced cost B. More searchable data C. Better data classification D. Expanded authority of the privacy officerAnswer: CQUESTION 138 A security administrator is developing training for corporate users on basic security principles for personal email accounts. Which of the following should be mentioned as the MOST secure way for password recovery?A. Utilizing a single Qfor password recovery B. Sending a PIN to a smartphone through text message C. Utilizing CAPTCHA to avoid brute force attacks D. Use a different e-mail address to recover passwordAnswer: B1.|2018 Latest SY0-501 Exam Dumps (PDF & VCE) 563Q Download: http://bit.ly/SY0-501-Exam-dumps-book 2.|2018 Latest SY0-501 Exam Questions & Answers Download: https://www.pass4surekey.com/exam/sy0-501.html
  25. The new 2018 version (Jan/2018 Updated) 70-535 dumps now are available, here are part of 70-535 exam questions (FYI):[Get the VCE dumps and PDF dumps download link at the end of this post]NEW QUESTION 231You create an Ubuntu Linux virtual machine (VM) by using the Azure Portal. You do not specify a password when you create the VM. You need to connect to the terminal of the VM.Solution: You connect to the public IP address of the VM by using Secure Shell (SSH) and specify your private key.Does the solution meet the goal?A. YesB. NoAnswer: BNEW QUESTION 232You create an Ubuntu Linux virtual machine (VM) by using the Azure Portal. You do not specify a password when you create the VM. You need to connect to the terminal of the VM.Solution: You use the Connect button on the Overview blade for the VM.Does the solution meet the goal?A. YesB. NoAnswer: BNEW QUESTION 233You use Azure Resource Manager (ARM) templates to deploy resources. You need to ensure that storage resources defined in templates cannot be deleted.Solution: You define the following JSON in the temp:“resource”: [{“name”: “[concat(parameters(‘lockedResource’), ‘/Microsoft.Authorization/myLock’)]”,“type”: “Microsoft.Authorzation/locks”,“apiVersion”: “2015-01-01”,“properties”: {“level”: “ReadOnly”}}]Does the solution meet the goal?A. YesB. NoAnswer: ANEW QUESTION 234Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each questions in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.You create an Ubuntu Linux virtual machine (VM) by using the Azure Portal. You do not specify a password when you create the VM. You need to connect to the terminal of the VM.Solution: You connect to the public IP address of the VM by using Secure Shell (SSH) and specify your public key.Does the solution meet the goal?A. YesB. NoAnswer: ANEW QUESTION 235Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.You manage an Azure SQL Database. The database has weekly backups that are stored in an Azure Recovery Services vault. You create an Azure Recovery Services vault and download the backup agent installation file. You need to complete the installation of the backup agent. What should you do first?A. Configure network throttling.B. Set the storage replication option.C. Download the vault credentials file.D. Select the data to back up.Answer: CNEW QUESTION 236Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.You manage an Azure SQL Database. The database has weekly backups that are stored in an Azure Recovery Services vault. A company deploys Microsoft SQL Server on an Azure Standard_DS3 virtual machine (VM). You need to modify the disk caching policy. Which Azure PowerShell cmdlet should you run?A. Set-AzureRmVmOperatingSystemB. Set-AzureRmVmDataDiskC. Update-DiskD. Update-AzureDiskAnswer: BNEW QUESTION 237A company uses Azure to host virtual machines (VMS) and web apps. You have an app service named App1 that uses the Basic app service tier. You need to ensure that diagnostic data for App1 is permanently stored.Solution: You specify a storage account in the Diagnostics.xml file.Does the solution meet the goal?A. YesB. NoAnswer: BNEW QUESTION 238You specify the storage account that you want to use in the ServiceConfiguration.cscfg. You use Azure to virtual machines (VMS) and web apps. You have an app service named App1 that uses the Basic app service tier. You need to ensure that diagnostic data for App1 is permanently stored.Solution: You scale the app service to the Standard tier.Does the solution meet the goal?A. YesB. NoAnswer: ...... Get the newest Pass4surekey 70-535 VCE dumps here: http://bit.ly/70-535-dumps Read the newest Pass4surekey 70-535 exam questions from this Blog:https://www.pass4surekey.com/exam/70-535.htmlGood Luck!!!
  26. 2018 June New Check Point 156-915.80 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new 156-915.80 Real Exam Questions:QUESTION 266 Which is the correct order of a log flow processed by SmartEvents components:A. Firewall > Correlation Unit > Log Server > SmartEvent Server Database > SmartEvent Client B. Firewall > SmartEvent Server Database > Correlation unit > Log Server > SmartEvent Client C. Firewall > Log Server > SmartEvent Server Database > Correlation Unit > SmartEvent Client D. Firewall > Log Server > Correlation Unit > SmartEvent Server Database > SmartEvent ClientAnswer: DQUESTION 267 In SmartEvent, what are the different types of automatic reactions that the administrator can configure?A. Mail, Block Source, Block Event Activity, External Script, SNMP Trap B. Mail, Block Source, Block Destination, Block Services, SNMP Trap C. Mail, Block Source, Block Destination, External Script, SNMP Trap D. Mail, Block Source, Block Event Activity, Packet Capture, SNMP TrapAnswer: AQUESTION 268 Which components allow you to reset a VPN tunnel?A. vpn command or SmartView monitor tu B. delete or vpn she11 command vpn ike sa C. vpn or delete vpn command tunnelutil ike sa D. SmartView monitor onlyAnswer: DQUESTION 269 When synchronizing clusters, which of the following statements is FALSE?A. The state of connections using resources is maintained in a Security Server, so their connections cannot be synchronized. B. Only cluster members running on the same OS platform can be synchronized. C. In the case of a failover, accounting information on the failed member may be lost despite a properly working synchronization. D. Client Authentication or Session Authentication connections through a cluster member will be lost if the cluster member fails.Answer: DQUESTION 270 Which of the following is a new R80.10 Gateway feature that had not been available in R77.X and older?A. The rule base can be built of layers, each containing a set of the security rules. Layers are inspected in the order in which they are defined, allowing control over the rule base flow and which security functionalities take precedence. B. Limits the upload and download throughout for streaming media in the company to 1 Gbps. C. Time object to a rule to make the rule active only during specified times. D. Sub Policies are sets of rules that can be created and attached to specific rules. If the rule is matched, inspection will continue in the sub policy attached to it rather than in the next ruleAnswer: AQUESTION 271 In R80.10, how do you manage your Mobile Access Policy?A. Through the Unified Policy B. Through the Mobile Console C. From SmartDashboard D. From the Dedicated Mobility TabAnswer: CQUESTION 272 You find one of your cluster gateways showing "Down" when you run the "cphaprob stat" command. You then run the "clusterXL_admin up" on the down member but unfortunately the member continues to show down. What command do you run to determine the case?A. cphaprob f register B. cphaprob ds report C. cpstatf-all D. cphaprob a listAnswer: DQUESTION 273 SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?A. Smart Cloud Services B. Load Sharing Mode Services C. Threat Agent Solution D. Public Cloud ServicesAnswer: CQUESTION 274 Which of the following is NOT a valid way to view interface's IP address settings in Gaia?A. Using the command sthtool in Expert Mode B. Viewing the file / config/ active C. Via the Gaia WebUl D. Via the command show in CLISH configurationAnswer: AQUESTION 275 Check Point recommends configuring Disk Space Management parameters to delete old log entities when available disk space is less than or equal to?A. 50% B. 75% C. 80% D. 15%Answer: DQUESTION 276 What API command below creates a new host with the name "New Host" and IP address of "192.168.0.10"?A. new host name "New Host" ip-address "192.168.0.10" B. set host name "New Host" ip-address "192.168.0.10" C. create host name "New Host" ip-address "192.168.0.10" D. add host name "New Host" ip-address "192.168.0.10"Answer: D 1.|2018 Latest 156-915.80 Exam Dumps (PDF & VCE) 365Q&As Download: https://www.pass4surekey.com/exam/156-915.80.html
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